Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 05:20
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Are people who cite the 2nd Amendment honestly familiar with what it establishes?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why do women change that much more with age?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
"Oh, Mary!" star Cole Escola manifested their Tony win the old-fashioned way - Salon.com
There's no rule.